My seller in Florida needs to get a loan from his property in Houston Texas which is paid in full. He was told that in order to take money from his Texas property his property needs to be homesteaded. Is this correct, if so, is there anyway around it? Can anyone from Texas advise? He needs to bring cash to his Florida closing to cover his shortage, then he will be moving to Houston.

Is the property occupied? Is it a rental or 2nd home? This information would be helpful.