My parents are considering buying a 2nd home, but right now would be renting it out full time. However, eventually they may be interested in moving in, maybe for a long time but maybe just for the 2 years required to not have the capital gains taxed.
In doing some sleuthing around the web, I came across a Minneapolis Star-Tribune article about a change to the taxation of profits on the sale of 2nd homes - http://www.startribune.com/homes/buy/26414929.html?elr=KArksLckDiUvckDiU_1OKUiD3aPc:_Yyc:aULPQL7PQLanchO7DiU
Basically it sounds like they are doing away with the 2 years deal. It's all % based now - if you live in the house 2 out of 10 years, 20% of your gain would not be taxed, as opposed to 100% being exempt before (if you lived in it the last 2 years).
I think I read that right...
Can somebody clarify something for me?
Here's how the new rule is expected to work: If you buy a second home or investment property on or after Jan. 1, convert it later to your principal residence and then sell, you'll need to allocate any gain from the sale between periods of qualified and nonqualified usage. Rental or second home usage before 2009 is grandfathered -- it won't count as nonqualified use in the equation.
So does that mean if you buy before January 1st, 2009, you can live in your 2nd house for years 9 and 10 (continuing from my example above) and renting it years 1-8, and have all gains tax exempt (up to the $250/$500k limits)?
Or does it just mean that if you bought on, say, January 1st, 2008, that when you sell after year 10, you will only be taxed on the gains for years 2-8?
Thanks for any help.
